CCNA Discovery 2 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
• show version
• show ip route
• show interface
• show ip protocols

2.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
• 14
• 15
• 16
• 17

3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
• when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
• when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
• when more than one interior routing protocol is used
• when the company uses two or more ISPs

4. Consider this routing table entry
• R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a static route
• a default route
• a RIP route
• an OSPF route
• an EIGRP route
• a directly-connected route

5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
• Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
• Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
• metric
• subnet mask
• area identification
• hop count
• autonomous system number

7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v2

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
• routerA(config-router)# no version 2
• routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
• routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
• routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
• routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

9.

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
• in 30 seconds
• in 60 seconds
• in 90 seconds
• Immediately

10. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
• AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
• Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
• ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
• All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
• to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
• to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
• to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
• to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
• to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
• border gateway router
• DSLAM
• web server
• interior router

15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
• show ip route
• show ip rip
• debug ip rip
• show ip protocols
• show ip rip database

16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• a home business with one ISP connection
• a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
• a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
• a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
• a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database

19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
• They are created in interface configuration mode.
• They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
• They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
• They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
• Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
• Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
• Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
• Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
• In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP

23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• Ping
• show arp
• Traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
• Internet
• intranet
• virtual private network
• autonomous system

CCNA Discovery 2 module 4 Exam Answer Version 4.0

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits? 
• 128 
• 254 
• 255 
• 256 
• 512 
• 1024 

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. 
• 11110010 
• 11011011 
• 11110110 
• 11100111 
• 11100101 
• 11101110 

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask? 
• 254 
• 255 
• 256 
• 510 
• 511 
• 512 

4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT? 
• Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address. 
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address. 
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments. 
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications. 

5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks? 
• Class A 
• Class B 
• Class C 
• Class D 
• Class E 

6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses? 
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network. 
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet. • Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network. 
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network. 
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet. 

7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.) 
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit. 
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network. 
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100. 
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address. 
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks. 
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use. 

8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet? 
• 6 
• 14 
• 30 
• 62 

9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask? 
• 192.168.0.0 
• 192.168.0.255 
• 192.168.32.0 
• 192.168.32.254 
• 192.168.32.255 

10. 
 
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem? 
• The host subnet mask is incorrect. 
• The default gateway is a network address. 
• The default gateway is a broadcast address. 
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. 

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits? 
• 64 
• 96 
• 128 
• 192 
• 256 
• 512 

12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address? 
• 127 to 191 
• 127 to 192 
• 128 to 191 
• 128 to 192 

13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network? 
• Class A 
• Class B 
• Class C 
• Class D 
• Class E 

14. 
 
refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks? 
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95 
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94 
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96 
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127 
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128 

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address? 
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13 
• 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13 
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13 
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13 

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.) 
• to preserve registered public IP addresses 
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks 
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet 
• to make routing protocols operate more efficiently 
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet 
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers 

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet? 
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address. 
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address. 
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address. 
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address. 
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses? 
• 255 and below 
• 1024 and below 
• 1025 and above 
• 64,000 and above 

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type? 
• inside global 
• outside local 
• outside global 
• private IP address 

20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.) 
• improved security 
• improved router performance 
• decreased processor load 
• improved scalability 
• universal application compatibility 
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

CCNA Discovery 2 module 5 Exam Answer Version

1. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.) 
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management. 
• SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser. 
• SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices. 
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands. 
• SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration. 

2. Which mode will a configured router display at login? 
• global configuration mode 
• setup mode 
• ROM monitor mode 
• user EXEC mode 

3. 
 
Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown? 
• virtual terminal only 
• enable mode only 
• console and virtual terminal only 
• enable mode and virtual terminal 
• only the service password 
• all configured passwords 

4. 
 
Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.) 
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192 
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192 
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192 
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown • Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4 
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco 
Switch1(config-line)# login 
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15 
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco 
Switch1(config-line)# login 
• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65 

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure? 
• blinks rapidly amber 
• blinks rapidly green 
• steady amber 
• steady green 

6. 
 
Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? 
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254 
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1 
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1 
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1 
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0 

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes? 
• router# show running-config 
• router# show startup-config 
• router# show flash 
• router# show version 

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) 
• VTY interface 
• console interface 
• Ethernet interface 
• secret EXEC mode 
• privileged EXEC mode 
• router configuration mode 

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination? 
• Tab 
• Ctrl-P 
• Ctrl-N 
• Up Arrow 
• Right Arrow 
• Down Arrow 

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'? 
• Router> enable 
Router# configure terminal 
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A 
• Router> enable 
Router# hostname LAB_A 
• Router> enable 
Router# configure router 
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A 
• Router> enable 
Router(config)# host name LAB_A 

11. 
 
Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch? 
• Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop. 
• Telnet to the switch from the router console. 
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console. 
• The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings. 

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.) 
• Easy IP (IP negotiated) 
• IP unnumbered 
• No IP address 
• HDLC encapsulation 
• Frame Relay encapsulation 
• PPP encapsulation 

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.) 
• host name 
• DHCP options 
• domain name 
• interface IP addresses 
• enable secret password 
• DNS server IP addresses 

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.) 
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session. 
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default. 
• Set the command history buffer size. • Recall previously entered commands. 
• Save command lines in a log file for future reference. 

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet? 
• host name 
• domain name 
• DHCP address pool 
• DNS server IP address 
16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.) 
• ATM 
• CHAP 
• Frame Relay 
• HDLC 
• PAP 
• PPP 

17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks? 
• Router# show ip interfaces 
• Router# show ip connections 
• Router# show ip route 
• Router# show ip networks 

18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible? 
• console 
• AUX 
• Telnet 
• modem 

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.) 
• platform 
• routing protocol 
• connected interface of neighbor device 
• device ID 
• IP addresses of all interfaces 
• enable mode password 

20. 
 
Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit? 
• transmission of data 
• reception of data 
• clocking for the synchronous link 
• noise cancellation in transmitted data 

21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.) 
• stores the routing table 
• retains contents when power is removed 
• stores the startup configuration file 
• contains the running configuration file 
• stores the ARP table 

22. 
 
Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server? 
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252 
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000 
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown 
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252 
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown 
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252 
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000 
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown 
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252 
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown 

23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem? 
• The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch. 
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port. 
• The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC. 
• The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch. 

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.) 
• All router commands are available. 
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command. 
• A password can be entered to allow access to other modes. 
• Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured. 
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed. 

25. Which command turns on a router interface? 
• Router(config-if)# enable 
• Router(config-if)# no down 
• Router(config-if)# s0 active 
• Router(config-if)# interface up 
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown